quote-part indivise de parties communes

21:46 Aug 21, 2008 

It seems that we could get bogged down in an argument about the nature of ownership of the common parts of a building under English & Welsh law. This does not seem very relevant to the linguistic concerns of the question. There seems little point in an argument here about the nature of a freehold, leasehold or commonhold interest in land in England and Wales unless it elucidates the question, which is, presumably, about translation of a particular phrase relating to property in France. Of course the nature of ownership of common parts of a building under French law IS relevant, but a detailed account of that is beyond the scope of this question.